Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
14.06.2025 00:57
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
The #1 Underrated Vegetable with More Vitamin C Than an Orange, According to Dietitians - EatingWell
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Why does a lot of the YouTube community support the MGTOW movement?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?